Why did Homelander rape Becca?
Like, I see people asking on the sub if he actually raped her or if it was consensual when it's been long established it was rape, but I never heard anyone ask the question on why he would do it in the first place.
Knowing how Homelander was in season 1, it's completely out of his MO. He only shows interest in Stillwell, and as the series progresses, the way he takes romantic interest in specific people makes it weird that he just targets Becca out of nowhere and goes after nobody else.
Was the reason ever brought up and I missed it? Or is there still speculation?
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